Does placing an offense in a special penal statute… - MCQ

Multiple Choice Easy Jurisprudence

Practice question

Does placing an offense in a special penal statute necessarily make it malum prohibitum?

Yes, without exception.
Yes, if Congress uses a Republic Act number.
No; a special statute may punish an inherently wrongful offense classified as malum in se.
Yes, if imprisonment is available.
No special statute can define any crime.

Revised Penal Code, Act No. 3815, specified articles, as amended: https://elibrary.judiciary.gov.ph/thebookshelf/showdocs/28/20426; Article 3.
Estrada v Sandiganbayan, G.R. No. 148560, November 19, 2001, en banc main decision, plunder as malum in se: https://lawphil.net/judjuris/juri2001/nov2001/gr_148560_2001.html
Dungo v People, G.R. No. 209464, July 1, 2015, main decision, classification distinction (general doctrine, not superseded hazing procedures): https://lawphil.net/judjuris/juri2015/jul2015/gr_209464_2015.html
People v Bayona, G.R. No. 42288, February 16, 1935, main decision, intent to do the prohibited act distinguished from criminal intent (general doctrine, not obsolete election-law details): https://lawphil.net/judjuris/juri1935/feb1935/gr_42288_1935.html

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