Practice question
An official identifies a law permitting private practice in a qualified setting, but the particular engagement tends to conflict with official functions. Does the existence of that authorization alone settle the matter?
- Yes, it eliminates every conflict safeguard
- Yes, potential conflict never matters
- Yes, only a completed injury is relevant
- Yes, a client may accept the risk for the public
- No, the no-conflict-or-tendency condition remains applicable
Legal references
- R.A. No. 6713, Sections 7(b)(2) and 13: https://lawphil.net/statutes/repacts/ra1989/ra_6713_1989.html
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