Practice question
Distinguish an ordinary assertion that an agency made a legal error from the patent-illegality exception amounting to lack of jurisdiction. Why should a court not treat the two as identical merely because both use the word illegal?
Legal references
- Pimentel III v. House of Representatives, G.R. Nos. 274778, 275405 and 276233, December 3, 2025, main decision: https://lawphil.net/judjuris/juri2025/dec2025/gr_274778_2025.html
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