Practice question
A person intentionally substitutes one newborn for another, with all Article347 conditions proved. The defense says no fictitious birth was registered, so no listed mode exists. What distinction matters?
- The statute covers only marriage records
- Only a wholly fictitious birth can ever qualify
- Every exchange is automatically lawful
- Substitution is separately stated and need not be confused with simulation of birth
- Only bigamy can change civil status
Legal references
- RA10951 Section90, amended Article347, child substitution and concealment: https://lawphil.net/statutes/repacts/ra2017/ra_10951_2017.html
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