Practice question
After a valid 215 forfeiture and expiration of redemption without redemption, an official arranges a private sale of the acquired realty. No prior Secretary of Finance approval exists. It argues the taxpayer's expired redemption right removes 216's sale-approval requirement. Which is correct?
- Expiration of redemption does not itself supply the separate prior approval required for private sale.
- Every unredeemed forfeiture authorizes any official to sell privately.
- The buyer's preference necessarily substitutes for approval.
- No distinction exists between forfeiture and subsequent disposition.
- The original taxpayer may dictate a private sale forever.
Legal references
- NIRC Sections208-210,215-219: https://lawphil.net/statutes/repacts/ra1997/ra_8424_1997.html
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