Practice question
A receipt states a definite property and price and presently binds both sides to a sale, subject only to the sellers completing an identified title-transfer event. The established undertaking contains no reservation of a later decision whether to sell. A litigant says any suspensive event makes it a contract to sell. Under Coronel and Chavez, which is correct?
- A conditional sale may already contain the necessary consent despite the suspensive event
- Every suspensive event necessarily removes consent
- Every conditional undertaking is an option only
- The receipt must automatically be a donation
- The title-transfer event is irrelevant to every issue
Legal references
- Civil Code RA386: https://lawphil.net/statutes/repacts/ra1949/ra_386_1949.html Articles1186,1458,1478.
- Chavez v Spouses Gopez GR242366 February26,2025 MAIN: https://lawphil.net/judjuris/juri2025/feb2025/gr_242366_2025.html Contract to sell distinguished from conditional sale.
- Coronel v Court of Appeals GR103577 October7,1996 MAIN: https://lawphil.net/judjuris/juri1996/oct1996/gr_103577_1996.html Consent and suspensive conditions.
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