Practice question
A competent and duly authorized State act expressly withdraws an identified property from its former public-use purpose and places it in the patrimonial category. A private occupant says the conversion itself immediately grants him title without a sale, prescription or other mode of acquisition. What is correct?
- Every withdrawal automatically conveys title to the first occupant
- Patrimonial conversion changes the legal category; a private claimant must still establish a lawful mode and requirements of acquisition
- The property becomes legally nonexistent
- All conveyancing rules disappear
- Only the occupant's age determines ownership
Legal references
- Civil Code Articles419–425 and427–439: https://lawphil.net/statutes/repacts/ra1949/ra_386_1949.html
- Republic v. Pasig Rizal Co., GR213207, February15 2022, main decision: https://elibrary.judiciary.gov.ph/thebookshelf/showdocs/1/68138
- RA11573, amended land-registration framework: https://lawphil.net/statutes/repacts/ra2021/ra_11573_2021.html
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