Practice question
Before paying, a buyer personally sees a family occupying the land and learns that the seller does not possess it. He makes no inquiry about their rights and relies only on an unencumbered title. What is the proper assessment?
- The title conclusively dispenses with inquiry
- His failure is irrelevant if he paid market price
- Occupation by others automatically belongs to the seller
- He cannot establish good faith merely by title reliance while ignoring the circumstance requiring inquiry
- All occupied property is legally unsaleable
Legal references
- G.R. 215038, October 17, 2016, main opinion: https://lawphil.net/judjuris/juri2016/oct2016/gr_215038_2016.html
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