Practice question
A family home's owner proposes its sale. The spouse and legal-age beneficiaries exist, but the owner says Article 158 allows ignoring all required written consents merely because title is in the owner's name. Assume the provision applies and no court has resolved a consent conflict. Which is correct?
- Title alone erases Article 158's conditions.
- The owner must consider Article 158's written-consent requirements; title alone does not dispense with them.
- Every sale is permanently prohibited even with all lawful requirements.
- Minor beneficiaries alone must sign instead of the stated adult consents.
- A buyer may create the missing consents unilaterally.
Legal references
- Family Code Articles152–158; https://elibrary.judiciary.gov.ph/thebookshelf/showdocs/5/95173
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